In terms of formal logic, this…

Since Pi is infinite and non-repeating, would that mean any finite sequence of non-repeating digits from 0-9 should appear somewhere in Pi in base 10?

…and this…

Does any possible string of infinite non-repeating digits contain every possible finite sequence of non repeating digits?

are equivalent statements.

The phrase “since X, would that mean Y” is the same as asking “is X a sufficient condition for Y”. Providing ANY example of X WITHOUT Y is a counter-example which proves X is NOT a sufficient condition.

The 1.010010001… example is literally one that is taught in classes to disprove OPs exact hypothesis. This isn’t a discussion where we’re both offering different perspectives and working towards a truth we don’t both see, thus is a discussion where you’re factually wrong and I’m trying to help you learn why lol.

Since Pi is infinite and non-repeating, would that mean any finite sequence of non-repeating digits from 0-9 should appear somewhere in Pi in base 10?

Does any possible string of infinite non-repeating digits contain every possible finite sequence of non repeating digits?

Let’s abstract this.

S = an arbitrary string of numbers

X = is infinite

Y = is non-repeating

Z = contains every possible sequence of finite digits

Now your statements become:

Since S is X and Y, does that mean that it’s also Z?

Does any S that is X and Y, also Z?"