“We’re getting dangerously close to a nuclear accident,” IAEA Director General Rafael Mariano Grossi said following multiple attacks against the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant in Ukraine.
The head of the International Atomic Energy Agency said attacks against Europe’s largest nuclear power plant have put the world “dangerously close to a nuclear accident”.
Without attributing blame, IAEA Director General Rafael Mariano Grossi said his agency has been able to confirm three attacks against the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant since 7 April.
“These reckless attacks must cease immediately,” he told the Security Council on Monday. “Though, fortunately, they have not led to a radiological incident this time, they significantly increase the risk … where nuclear safety is already compromised.”
The fact you said it was Ukraine when the article says otherwise.
The article does not say otherwise.
The article says
So you would rather believe a conspiracy theory (or what else would you call that?) that Russia is repeatedly (!) attacking itself, it’s own territory that it controls for more than 2 years, than that Ukraine is attacking the territory of its enemy?
It isn’t Russian territory. It’s occupied Ukraine.
This is correct from the viewpoint of Ukraine (and its allies)!
But according to Russia and Russian laws - it is Russian territory now.
According to the facts, it is fully controlled by Russia for 2 years now (are you arguing with that?). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Russian_annexation_of_Donetsk,_Kherson,_Luhansk_and_Zaporizhzhia_oblasts_of_Ukraine
Note that we are not talking about whether it is legal by international law, whether it’s recognized by the rest of the world, etc. The fact is according to Russia it is Russian territory, and the fact is that it has full control over it. And so we are getting back to my question
According to international law. It’s Ukraine.
so what do you want to say? That Russia doesn‘t control the power station?
But I did address that in my comment, didn’t I?
What does it matter if the international law says so, if in fact the territory is fully controlled by Russia? International law can say that Russia does not exist at all, it would not change the fact that it does exist, would it?